Before we move on to the next Psalm which will expand our vision to more distant horizons, it seems fitting to come back to the very first verse of the first Psalm and ask the question who is this "blessed man."1 First impressions would tell us that he is a symbol of universality, a representation of the generic believer, whatever that might be. Relying on first impressions the idea of, the meaning of the word “blessed.” This is the ‘man’s’ clear state of being. Is this the same man that David is referring to in Psalm 32 verse 1? Here the man’s transgression is forgiven, whose “sin is covered.” Surely this can happen only through Christ? This is where I get caught on thorns for I have to read this in terms of my 21st century context. I have to ask: Don't the Psalms predate Jesus? So my question is how can I hope to find Christ here? To find an answer to this point of tension we need to think about the nature of Scripture: God breathed, inspired by the Holy Spirit, ...
Getting close to God through His Word.